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55
Subjective

There are 5 cards numbered 1 to 5, one number on one card. Two cards are drawn at random without replacement. Let $X$ denotes the sum of the numbers on two cards drawn. Find the mean and variance of $X$.

Explanation

Here, $$S=\{(1,2),(2,1),(1,3),(3,1),(2,3),(3,2),(1,4),(4,1),(1,5),(5,1),(2,4),(4,2),(2,5),(5,2),(3,4),(4,3),(3,5),(5,3),(5,4),(4,5)\}$$

$$\Rightarrow n(S)=20$$

Let random variable be $X$ which denotes the sum of the numbers on two cards drawn.

$\therefore\qquad X=3,4,5,6,7,8,9$

$$\begin{aligned} & \text { At } X=3, P(X)=\frac{2}{20}=\frac{1}{10} \\ & \text { At } X=4, P(X)=\frac{2}{20}=\frac{1}{10} \\ & \text { At } X=5, P(X)=\frac{4}{20}=\frac{1}{5} \\ & \text { At } X=6, P(X)=\frac{4}{20}=\frac{1}{5} \\ & \text { At } X=7, P(X)=\frac{4}{20}=\frac{1}{5} \\ & \text { At } X=8, P(X)=\frac{2}{20}=\frac{1}{10} \\ & \text { At } X=9, P(X)=\frac{2}{20}=\frac{1}{10} \end{aligned}$$

$\therefore \quad$ Mean, $E(X)=\Sigma X P(X)=\frac{3}{10}+\frac{4}{10}+\frac{5}{5}+\frac{6}{5}+\frac{7}{5}+\frac{8}{10}+\frac{9}{10}$

$=\frac{3+4+10+12+14+8+9}{10}=6$

$$\begin{aligned} &\text { Also, }\\ &\begin{aligned} \Sigma X^2 P(X) & =\frac{9}{10}+\frac{16}{10}+\frac{25}{5}+\frac{36}{5}+\frac{49}{5}+\frac{64}{10}+\frac{81}{10} \\ & =\frac{9+16+50+72+98+64+81}{10}=39 \end{aligned} \end{aligned}$$

$$\begin{aligned} \therefore \quad \operatorname{Var}(X) & =\Sigma X^2 P(X)-[\Sigma X P(X)]^2 \\ & =39-(6)^2=39-36=3 \end{aligned}$$

56
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

If $P(A)=\frac{4}{5}$ and $P(A \cap B)=\frac{7}{10}$, then $P(B / A)$ is equal to

A
  $\frac{1}{10}$
B
$\frac{1}{8}$
C
$\frac{7}{8}$
D
$\frac{17}{20}$
57
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

If $P(A \cap B)=\frac{7}{10}$ and $P(B)=\frac{17}{20}$, then $P(A / B)$ equals to

A
$\frac{14}{17}$
B
$\frac{17}{20}$
C
$\frac{7}{8}$
D
$\frac{1}{8}$
58
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

If $P(A)=\frac{3}{10}, P(B)=\frac{2}{5}$ and $P(A \cup B)=\frac{3}{5}$, then $P(B / A)+P(A / B)$ equals to

A
$\frac{1}{4}$
B
$\frac{1}{3}$
C
$\frac{5}{12}$
D
$\frac{7}{12}$
59
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

If $P(A)=\frac{2}{5}, P(B)=\frac{3}{10}$ and $P(A \cap B)=\frac{1}{5}$, then $P\left(A^{\prime} / B^{\prime}\right) \cdot P\left(B^{\prime} / A^{\prime}\right)$ is equal to

A
$\frac{5}{6}$
B
$\frac{5}{7}$
C
$\frac{25}{42}$
D
$1$